Here's one:
AS usurpation is the exercise of power, which another hath a right to; so tyranny is the exercise of power beyond right, which no body can have a right to. And this is making use of the power any one has in his hands, not for the good of those who are under it, but for his own private separate advantage. When the governor, however intitled, makes not the law, but his will, the rule; and his commands and actions are not directed to the preservation of the properties of his people, but the satisfaction of his own ambition, revenge, covetousness, or any other irregular passion. (John Locke, The Two Treatises of Civil Government, §. 199 [1689]) (emphasis & spelling as found in the original)
Now THAT sounds familiar, doesn't it? And where did Locke find it?
... the special and greatest point of difference that is between a rightful king and an usurping tyrant, is this, that whereas the proud and ambitious tyrant doth think his kingdom and people are only ordained for satisfaction of his desires and unreasonable appetites, the righteous and just king doth by the contrary acknowledge himself to be ordained for the procuring of the wealth and property of his people. (King James I, speaking to Parliament, 1603 - quoted by Locke)
And where, then, did this first show up in those founding documents?
— That to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed, — That whenever any Form of Government becomes destructive of these ends, it is the Right of the People to alter or to abolish it, and to institute new Government, laying its foundation on such principles and organizing its powers in such form, as to them shall seem most likely to effect their Safety and Happiness. (the Declaration of Independence, para. 2)
That's what I'm talking about.
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2 comments:
I know it's kind of strange but this post actually got me a little emotional.
It's okay, Groundhog; I'm glad it's not just me.
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